Viral Infections USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 44-year-old man with a history of HIV infection presents to clinic for evaluation of a new skin lesion. He reports poor adherence to antiretroviral therapy for the past 18 months. On examination, he has a painless, non-blanching violaceous macule on his lower extremity that has slowly enlarged over 6 weeks. His vital signs are stable. Laboratory studies show: CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 380/mm³, HIV RNA viral load 185,000 copies/mL, hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AKaposi sarcoma (HHV-8 associated)Correct answer
- BCryptococcal meningitis with skin manifestations
- CDisseminated tuberculosis with erythema induratum
- DOral candidiasis with oral mucosal involvement
- ECytomegalovirus retinitis with hemorrhagic lesions
- FProgressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy with skin involvement
- GRing-enhancing lesions on brain MRI
- HGround-glass opacities on chest CT
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