Viral Infections USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 65-year-old man with chickenpox history presents with painful vesicular rash in T5 dermatomal distribution, fever (38.2°C), and malaise. Vital signs show BP 138/82, HR 88, RR 16, SpO2 98% on room air. CSF analysis shows lymphocytic pleocytosis. He denies immunosuppression or recent trauma. Symptoms began 48 hours ago. Which antiviral agent, initiated now, most effectively prevents post-herpetic neuralgia development?
Answer choices
- APrednisone alone
- BTopical capsaicin cream
- CAcyclovir or valacyclovirCorrect answer
- DIbuprofen and rest
- EGabapentin monotherapy
- FFamciclovir monotherapy
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