Viral Infections USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 32-year-old woman presents with fever, pharyngitis, and exudative tonsils for 3 days. She reports contact with her roommate who had similar symptoms 1 week ago. Rapid strep test is negative. Blood smear shows atypical lymphocytes. She develops a petechial rash after receiving amoxicillin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AInfectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virusCorrect answer
- BCytomegalovirus infection
- CAcute streptococcal pharyngitis with penicillin allergy
- DAdenovirus pharyngitis
- EAcute HIV infection
- FToxoplasmosis with drug hypersensitivity reaction
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