Seizure Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 55-year-old man with newly diagnosed small-cell lung cancer presents with a single generalized tonic-clonic seizure. MRI brain reveals three hypodense lesions in the left temporal lobe consistent with metastases. Neurologic examination shows no focal deficits. CSF analysis is normal. The patient is started on levetiracetam 500 mg twice daily. Which of the following best describes the primary indication for antiepileptic prophylaxis in this patient?
Answer choices
- AReduction of intracranial pressure through decreased cerebral metabolic demand
- BPrevention of recurrent seizures in patients with structural brain lesionsCorrect answer
- CElimination of metastatic tumor burden to prevent future seizures
- DAcute management of status epilepticus to prevent neurologic complications
- EEnhancement of blood-brain barrier permeability to improve chemotherapy delivery
- FRestoration of normal EEG patterns to guide neurosurgical intervention
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