Seizure Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 44-year-old man with alcohol use disorder presents with 8 minutes of continuous generalized convulsions without consciousness recovery. Vitals: BP 148/92, HR 118, RR 22, SpO2 88%, Temp 37.2°C. Point-of-care glucose 105 mg/dL. Serum magnesium 1.2 mg/dL (low). No recent head trauma reported. He requires immediate airway management and seizure cessation. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Answer choices
- AObservation only because most seizures are self limited
- BPsychogenic nonepileptic seizure
- CDiazepam followed by fosphenytoin for status epilepticusCorrect answer
- DEthosuximide blocks thalamic T type calcium channels
- ECarbamazepine use for focal seizures
- FMagnesium supplementation alone without anticonvulsants since hypomagnesemia is the underlying cause
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