Seizure Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 29-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes beginning with epigastric aura, progressing to lip smacking and impaired awareness lasting several minutes, followed by 20-minute postictal confusion. Vital signs: BP 128/82, HR 98, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Brain MRI demonstrates unilateral hippocampal atrophy with T2 hyperintensity. EEG shows no generalized spike-wave discharges. She takes no antiepileptic medications. Which underlying pathology best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- APsychogenic nonepileptic seizure
- BAcute disseminated encephalomyelitis
- CMultiple sclerosis
- DTodd paralysis
- EMesial temporal sclerosisCorrect answer
- FTuberose sclerosis complex with cortical tubers
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