Pituitary Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive frontal headaches, bitemporal hemianopsia, and galactorrhea for 6 months. Vital signs: BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 76 bpm, RR 14, Temp 37°C. Serum prolactin is 85 ng/mL; thyroid function tests are normal. FSH and LH are within normal limits. MRI demonstrates a 1.2-cm sellar mass with suprasellar extension compressing the optic chiasm. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Answer choices
- AAntithyroid medication
- BDopamine agonist therapyCorrect answer
- CTranssphenoidal surgery
- DEstrogen replacement therapy
- ERadiation therapy
- FSomatostatin analog injection
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