Pituitary Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 56-year-old man with hypertension on lisinopril presents with severe frontal headache, neck stiffness, and sudden-onset bitemporal hemianopsia. Vital signs: BP 158/92 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98% on room air. He is afebrile with normal CSF studies and no meningeal signs on repeat examination. Brain MRI reveals a 2-cm sellar mass with acute hemorrhage and compression of the optic chiasm. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- APituitary apoplexyCorrect answer
- BMeningitis
- CAcute ischemic stroke
- DAcute angle-closure glaucoma
- ESubarachnoid hemorrhage
- FCraniopharyngioma with acute cyst rupture
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