Pituitary Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 34-year-old woman presents with 6 months of amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Vital signs are normal (BP 118/76, HR 78, RR 14, Temp 98.6°F). Laboratory studies show elevated prolactin (145 ng/mL), normal TSH and free T4, and normal cortisol. MRI reveals a 12-mm intrasellar mass without suprasellar extension or optic chiasm compression. She denies headaches and visual disturbances. She takes no medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Answer choices
- ALevothyroxine supplementation
- BTranssphenoidal surgical resection
- CEstrogen replacement therapy
- DRadiation therapy
- EDopamine agonist (bromocriptine or cabergoline)Correct answer
- FWatchful waiting without treatment given absence of visual field defects
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