Pituitary Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 28-year-old man presents with erectile dysfunction, decreased libido, and progressive gynecomastia. He reports headaches and reduced peripheral vision. Laboratory studies show testosterone 145 ng/dL (low), LH 2.2 mIU/L (low), and prolactin 78 ng/mL. MRI reveals a 1.8 cm sellar mass. Which of the following best describes this patient's hormonal pattern?
Answer choices
- ASecondary hypogonadism with hyperprolactinemiaCorrect answer
- BPrimary gonadal failure with testicular atrophy
- CPrimary hypogonadism with elevated LH
- DHypopituitarism with isolated prolactin elevation
- ENormal variant delayed puberty
- FSecondary hypogonadism with central hypothyroidism
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