Pituitary Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 44 year old obese multiparous woman undergoes MRI for chronic headaches. The scan shows herniation of the subarachnoid space into the sella turcica with flattening of the pituitary gland. She has no focal neurologic deficits and endocrine laboratory values are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- APituitary apoplexy
- BLymphocytic hypophysitis
- CPrimary empty sella syndromeCorrect answer
- DMacroprolactinoma
- ECraniopharyngioma
- FSecondary empty sella syndrome from intracranial hypertension
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