Pituitary Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 9-year-old boy presents with a 6-month history of poor linear growth, headaches, and declining school performance. Vital signs reveal BP 105/68 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 18/min, temp 37°C, SpO2 98% on room air. Physical examination shows short stature, bitemporal hemianopsia, and normal pubic hair development. MRI demonstrates a calcified suprasellar cystic mass with mild hydrocephalus. Serum IGF-1 is low at 45 ng/mL (normal 115-360). Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- ACraniopharyngiomaCorrect answer
- BPituitary prolactinoma
- CMedulloblastoma
- DPilocytic astrocytoma
- EMeningioma
- FOptic nerve glioma
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