Pituitary Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 29 year old woman comes to the clinic because of 6 months of amenorrhea and intermittent milky nipple discharge. She takes risperidone for schizophrenia. Pregnancy test is negative. Physical examination is otherwise normal, and MRI of the sella is unremarkable. Which of the following best explains this patient's symptoms?
Answer choices
- AAutonomous ACTH secretion from corticotrophs
- BIncreased hypothalamic GnRH secretion
- CDecreased hypothalamic dopamine signaling to lactotrophsCorrect answer
- DAutoantibodies stimulating the TSH receptor
- EIncreased posterior pituitary oxytocin release
- FIncreased hypothalamic thyrotropin-releasing hormone stimulation of lactotrophs
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