Organ System Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 46 year old woman has central obesity, purple abdominal striae, and glucose intolerance. ACTH is low, and serum cortisol is elevated with no suppression after low or high dose dexamethasone. CT scan shows a unilateral adrenal mass. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her disease?
Answer choices
- AEctopic CRH secretion
- BExogenous glucocorticoid administration
- CAutonomous cortisol production by an adrenal adenomaCorrect answer
- DBilateral adrenal hyperplasia due to ACTH excess
- EPituitary ACTH excess
- FPrimary pigmented nodular adrenocortical disease bilaterally
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