Organ System Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 41-year-old man presents with an 8-month history of decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and progressive headaches. Vital signs show BP 138/82, HR 78, RR 16, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. Examination reveals bilateral gynecomastia and bitemporal hemianopia. Visual acuity remains intact. MRI demonstrates a 1.8 cm sellar mass with elevated prolactin level at 180 ng/mL. Which cell type most likely gave rise to this lesion?
Answer choices
- ASomatotroph
- BThyrotroph
- CCorticotroph
- DLactotrophCorrect answer
- EGonadotroph
- FFolliculostellate cell
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