Neuromuscular Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 47-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of progressive weight loss and palpable purpura on her lower extremities. She develops abrupt left wrist drop followed 2 weeks later by right foot drop. Vital signs show BP 138/88, HR 92, temp 37.2°C, and normal oxygen saturation. Examination reveals asymmetric sensory and motor deficits in separate peripheral nerves. Serum creatinine is normal. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- ANormal pressure hydrocephalus
- BCIDP
- CMyasthenia gravis
- DMononeuritis multiplexCorrect answer
- EALS
- FMultifocal acquired demyelinating sensory and motor neuropathy (MADSAM)
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