Neurodegenerative Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 58 year old man presents with 8 months of progressive weakness in his hands and legs. He has muscle cramps and fasciculations. Examination shows atrophy of the intrinsic hand muscles, brisk reflexes at the knees, spasticity in the legs, and no sensory deficits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AGuillain Barre syndrome
- BMultiple sclerosis
- CAmyotrophic lateral sclerosisCorrect answer
- DMyasthenia gravis
- EPolymyositis
- FKennedy disease (spinobulbar muscular atrophy)
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