Neurodegenerative Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
An 8-year-old boy presents with progressive truncal ataxia and repeated falls over 3 months. Vital signs show HR 88/min, BP 105/68 mmHg, RR 18/min, temperature 37°C. He denies headaches and vomiting. MRI reveals a midline cerebellar mass compressing the fourth ventricle without hydrocephalus. CSF analysis shows normal glucose and protein. Histopathology demonstrates densely packed small blue cells with high mitotic activity. Which diagnosis is most likely?
Answer choices
- AMeningioma
- BEpendymoma
- CGlioblastoma
- DVestibular schwannoma
- EMedulloblastomaCorrect answer
- FAtypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor (AT/RT)
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