Neurodegenerative Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 28-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of intermittent blurry vision and progressive numbness of the left leg. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Brain MRI reveals multiple periventricular white matter lesions with T2/FLAIR hyperintensities meeting Barkhof criteria, demonstrating dissemination in space and time. CSF analysis shows oligoclonal bands. No fever or recent systemic infection is reported. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AMyasthenia gravis
- BGuillain-Barre syndrome
- CMultiple sclerosisCorrect answer
- DAmyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- EProgressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
- FNeurosarcoidosis
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