Mycology/Parasitology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and poor glucose control presents with a black, necrotic lesion on his hard palate that extends into surrounding tissues. He reports rapid onset of facial pain and swelling over 2 days. Biopsy shows broad, non-septate hyphae. Which of the following is the most important immediate therapeutic intervention?
Answer choices
- AIV fluconazole monotherapy
- BAggressive surgical debridement with IV amphotericin BCorrect answer
- COral itraconazole with insulin adjustment
- DTopical antifungal cream and glucose control
- EObservation with supportive care pending culture results
- FIV voriconazole with close monitoring of liver function tests
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.