Mycology/Parasitology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 28-year-old immunocompromised man with CD4 count of 45 cells/μL presents with severe frontal headache, fever, and neck stiffness. Lumbar puncture shows elevated protein (180 mg/dL), low glucose (35 mg/dL), and negative bacterial cultures. India ink stain of CSF shows encapsulated yeasts. Which of the following antifungal agents is most appropriate for initial therapy?
Answer choices
- AGriseofulvin
- BCaspofungin
- CAmphotericin BCorrect answer
- DFluconazole alone
- ETerbinafine
- FVoriconazole
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.