Histology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 28-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea for 8 months and galactorrhea. Vital signs show BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 37°C. Laboratory studies reveal prolactin 285 ng/mL (normal <25). MRI demonstrates a 12-mm sellar mass. Histologic examination shows cells in nests separated by reticulin fibers, with abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum and secretory granules. Visual fields remain intact. Which cell type is most likely responsible for this tumor?
Answer choices
- ALactotrophCorrect answer
- BThyrotroph
- CCorticotroph
- DSomatotroph
- EGonadotroph
- FChromophobe cells
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