Hematologic Malignancies USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 34-year-old woman presents with painless swelling of the right axilla. Biopsy shows lymphoid proliferation with CD4+ T cells predominating and sparse neoplastic cells expressing CD30 with prominent nuclei and clear cytoplasm (hallmark cells). Skin involvement is noted on physical exam. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- APrimary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphomaCorrect answer
- BPeripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified
- CNodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
- DAngioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma
- EAdult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma
- FCutaneous lymphoid hyperplasia
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