Hematologic Malignancies USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 64-year-old woman with a 30-year history of smoking presents with hemoptysis and a right lower lobe nodule on chest CT. She has palpable lymphadenopathy in the right axilla. Excisional biopsy of the lymph node shows hyperplasia with preserved architecture and reactive germinal centers. Which of the following is the next best step in diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AOrder PET-CT to stage suspected malignancy
- BObserve with serial imaging for 3 months
- CInitiate chemotherapy for presumed lymphoma
- DRepeat excisional biopsy or FNA of the lung noduleCorrect answer
- EPerform bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage
- FPerform axillary lymph node dissection for complete staging
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