Hematologic Malignancies USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 72-year-old man presents with headaches, blurry vision, and recurrent epistaxis. Vital signs show BP 158/92 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, temperature 37.2°C, and SpO2 98% on room air. Funduscopic examination reveals dilated retinal veins. Serum studies demonstrate markedly elevated IgM monoclonal protein at 4.2 g/dL with normal renal function. He denies fever or lymphadenopathy. Which of the following additional findings is most likely present?
Answer choices
- AHyperviscosity syndrome without lytic bone lesionsCorrect answer
- BBence Jones protein associated lytic bone lesions
- CMassive eosinophilia and elevated leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
- DSchistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolysis
- EReed Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy
- FCryoglobulinemia with peripheral neuropathy and glomerulonephritis
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.