Hematologic Malignancies USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 63-year-old woman presents with progressive painless generalized lymphadenopathy over 6 months. Vital signs: BP 128/82, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. She denies night sweats. Laboratory evaluation shows hemoglobin 12.8 g/dL; lymph node biopsy demonstrates nodular proliferation of centrocytes and centroblasts. Cytogenetic analysis reveals t(14;18) translocation. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of this chromosomal abnormality?
Answer choices
- AOverexpression of cyclin D1 due to immunoglobulin heavy chain promoter
- BConstitutive activation of c MYC driving proliferation
- CFormation of a fusion tyrosine kinase
- DConstitutive activation of BCL2 preventing apoptosisCorrect answer
- ELoss of p53 mediated DNA repair
- FIncreased expression of PIM1 kinase promoting cell survival
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