Hematologic Malignancies USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 72-year-old man presents with severe headaches, blurry vision, and spontaneous epistaxis. Vital signs show BP 168/94 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, temp 37°C. Fundoscopy reveals dilated tortuous retinal veins. Serum studies demonstrate markedly elevated IgM at 8.2 g/dL with normal hemoglobin. Bone marrow biopsy shows lymphoplasmacytic infiltration. He denies recent infections or lymphadenopathy. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- AWaldenstrom macroglobulinemiaCorrect answer
- BFollicular lymphoma
- CEssential thrombocythemia
- DMultiple myeloma
- EAcute lymphoblastic leukemia
- FChronic lymphocytic leukemia
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.