Glomerular Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 22-year-old woman with a family history of benign hematuria presents with persistent microscopic hematuria on routine urinalysis. Vital signs are normal (BP 118/76, HR 72, RR 16, Temp 98.6°F, SpO2 98%). Serum creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows RBCs without casts or proteinuria. Audiometry demonstrates normal hearing. She denies gross hematuria, flank pain, or recent infections. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AThin basement membrane diseaseCorrect answer
- BPoststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
- CFocal segmental glomerulosclerosis
- DAlport syndrome
- ERapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
- FIgA nephropathy
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.