General Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 22-year-old woman presents with recurrent shoulder and knee dislocations. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Physical examination reveals hyperextensible skin, hypermobile fingers, and poor wound healing with keloid formation. Labs show normal platelet count. She reports minor cuts heal with abnormal scarring and poor tensile strength. She denies recent infections or autoimmune disease. Which mechanism best explains her impaired wound healing?
Answer choices
- ADefect in copper dependent lysyl oxidase
- BDefect in type I collagen synthesis
- CDefect in collagen processing causing hyperextensible skin and poor wound healingCorrect answer
- DDefect in dystrophin
- EDefect in fibrillin
- FDefect in platelet aggregation and primary hemostasis
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