General Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 56-year-old man with a chronic lower leg ulcer undergoes surgical debridement. Vitals show BP 128/82, HR 88, RR 16, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. Labs reveal albumin 3.2 g/dL and wound culture negative for infection. Over subsequent weeks, the wound margins progressively contract inward, significantly decreasing the defect size. No signs of keloid formation develop. Which cell type is primarily responsible for this wound contraction process?
Answer choices
- AMyofibroblastsCorrect answer
- BPlasma cells
- CNeutrophils
- DMast cells
- EEndothelial cells
- FFibroblasts
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