General Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 33-year-old man with a family history of hemangioblastomas presents with hematuria. Vital signs show BP 145/92, HR 88, RR 16, temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. CT abdomen reveals a 4-cm clear cell renal cell carcinoma with increased vascularity; hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL. He denies constitutional symptoms. Genetic testing confirms VHL gene loss. Which downstream molecular effect most directly explains this tumor's marked angiogenesis?
Answer choices
- AAccumulation of hypoxia inducible factor with increased VEGF transcriptionCorrect answer
- BSuppression of beta catenin signaling
- CImpaired homologous recombination repair
- DIncreased degradation of hypoxia inducible factor
- EReduced expression of glucose transporter proteins
- FActivation of mTOR pathway with increased HIF-2α-independent angiogenesis
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.