General Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 58-year-old woman presents with painless generalized lymphadenopathy and fatigue. Vital signs show HR 88 bpm, BP 128/82 mmHg, temp 37.2°C, RR 16, SpO2 98%. Labs reveal hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL with normal leukocyte count. Lymph node biopsy demonstrates follicular architecture with centrocytes and centroblasts. Cytogenetic analysis identifies t(14;18) translocation. No fever or night sweats reported. Which mechanism best explains how this translocation promotes lymphomagenesis?
Answer choices
- AFusion protein that activates ABL kinase
- BOverexpression of a protein that inhibits apoptosisCorrect answer
- CLoss of a transcription factor that promotes differentiation
- DConstitutive activation of a tyrosine kinase receptor
- EMismatch repair deficiency causing microsatellite instability
- FChromosomal translocation juxtaposing MYC to the immunoglobulin heavy chain locus
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.