General Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 31-year-old woman with no prior abnormal Pap smears presents for routine cervical cancer screening. Vital signs are normal (BP 118/76, HR 78, RR 14, Temp 37°C). Pap testing reveals atypical squamous cells. Colposcopic biopsy shows disordered epithelial maturation, pleomorphic hyperchromatic nuclei, and numerous mitotic figures confined above an intact basement membrane. HPV testing is positive. Vaginal bleeding is absent. Which of the following best describes this lesion?
Answer choices
- AInvasive carcinoma
- BHypertrophy
- CMetaplasia
- DHyperplasia
- EDysplasiaCorrect answer
- FCarcinoma in situ
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