General Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 67-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy, weak stream, and nocturia. Vital signs show BP 142/88, HR 78, RR 16, temp 37.2°C. Digital rectal examination reveals a symmetrically enlarged, rubbery prostate without nodules. PSA is mildly elevated at 6.2 ng/mL. Urinalysis shows no hematuria or infection. He denies taking 5-alpha reductase inhibitors. Which pathologic process best explains the prostate enlargement?
Answer choices
- ADysplastic epithelial growth caused by human papillomavirus
- BHypertrophy of stromal and glandular elements without cell division
- CHyperplasia of prostatic glands and stroma due to dihydrotestosterone stimulationCorrect answer
- DMetaplastic replacement of glandular epithelium by squamous epithelium
- EMalignant neoplastic transformation of peripheral zone acini
- FInflammatory infiltration with lymphocytic proliferation and fibrosis of the prostate
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