General Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 29-year-old woman presents with recurrent lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Vital signs show BP 118/76, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. Laboratory evaluation reveals lymphocytosis with elevated LDH at 520 U/L; flow cytometry shows increased double-negative T cells. Genetic testing demonstrates a mutation affecting abnormal signaling through a cell surface death receptor. She denies fever or recent infections. Which receptor-ligand pair involved in lymphocyte apoptosis is most likely affected?
Answer choices
- AFas and Fas ligandCorrect answer
- BBCL2 and BAX
- CCD28 and B7
- DIL 2 receptor and IL 2
- EIntegrin and ICAM 1
- FTRAIL binding to death receptors DR4 and DR5
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