General Pathology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 69 year old man with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and peripheral arterial disease presents with a black painful right foot after several days of worsening toe discoloration. The distal tissue is dry and shriveled, but part of the lesion becomes foul smelling with purulent drainage after several days in the hospital. Which of the following best describes the pathologic process now present in this foot?
Answer choices
- APure coagulative necrosis without bacterial superinfection
- BFat necrosis due to pancreatic enzyme release
- CDry gangrene complicated by superimposed liquefactive necrosis from infectionCorrect answer
- DFibrinoid necrosis due to malignant hypertension
- ECaseous necrosis due to granulomatous inflammation
- FProgressive mummification from desiccation without bacterial superinfection
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