Fungal and Parasitic Infections USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 45-year-old man from the Southwest presents with fever, cough, and erythema nodosum. Chest X-ray shows hilar lymphadenopathy and a cavitary lesion in the left upper lobe. Sputum culture grows a dimorphic fungus that appears as spherules with endospores at body temperature. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Answer choices
- ATerbinafine
- BNystatin oral suspension
- CAmphotericin B followed by itraconazoleCorrect answer
- DGriseofulvin
- EFluconazole
- FVoriconazole followed by fluconazole
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations ā plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas ā with a free MedBoardPRO account.