Endocrine Pharmacology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension starts a new antidiabetic medication. He presents with orthostatic lightheadedness, 3-kg weight loss, and recurrent candida balanitis. Vital signs: BP 128/72 supine, 110/66 standing; HR 88; RR 16; temperature 37°C. Serum glucose 142 mg/dL (improved from baseline 240 mg/dL); HbA1c 6.8%. Urinalysis demonstrates glucosuria with negative ketones. He denies polyuria or polydipsia. Which medication most likely explains these findings?
Answer choices
- AEmpagliflozinCorrect answer
- BGlyburide
- CSitagliptin
- DPioglitazone
- EMetformin
- FDapagliflozin SGLT-2 inhibitor with identical mechanism to empagliflozin
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