Endocrine Pharmacology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 29-year-old woman with a 2-year history of infertility secondary to anovulation presents wanting to conceive. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 72, RR 14, Temp 98.6°F, SpO2 98%. Serum progesterone is undetectable. Pelvic ultrasound shows no ovarian cysts. She takes no hormonal contraceptives. Her physician prescribes a medication that blocks estrogen negative feedback at the hypothalamus, thereby increasing GnRH, FSH, and LH secretion to induce ovulation. Which drug was most likely prescribed?
Answer choices
- AClomipheneCorrect answer
- BLeuprolide
- CRaloxifene
- DTamoxifen
- EMifepristone
- FAromatase inhibitor (letrozole)
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