Endocrine Pharmacology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 51-year-old man with acromegaly treated with transsphenoidal surgery presents with persistent symptoms. Vital signs: BP 148/92, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 98.6°F, SpO2 98%. Laboratory studies show elevated IGF-1 at 520 ng/mL (normal <200). MRI shows no residual pituitary adenoma. He denies headaches or vision changes. His endocrinologist prescribes a medication that antagonizes peripheral growth hormone receptors rather than suppressing pituitary hormone secretion. Which drug was most likely prescribed?
Answer choices
- APegvisomantCorrect answer
- BLeuprolide
- CClomiphene
- DOctreotide
- ECabergoline
- FSomatostatin
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