Endocrine Pharmacology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 57-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus started a new oral agent two months ago. He now presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and recurrent candidal balanitis. Vital signs: BP 138/82, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. Fasting glucose 156 mg/dL, HbA1c 7.8%. Urinalysis shows glycosuria and no ketones. He denies recent antibiotic use. The medication lowers blood glucose by inhibiting SGLT2-mediated renal glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubule. Which drug most likely caused these adverse effects?
Answer choices
- APioglitazone
- BEmpagliflozinCorrect answer
- CSitagliptin
- DMetformin
- EGlyburide
- FCanagliflozin
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