Endocrine Pharmacology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 59-year-old woman with a 12-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and compensated systolic heart failure (ejection fraction 40%) presents to her primary care physician for a routine follow-up. Two months ago, she was started on a new oral antidiabetic agent that activates a nuclear receptor in adipose tissue to increase adiponectin levels and improve peripheral insulin sensitivity. At today's visit, her blood pressure is 138/86 mmHg, heart rate is 94/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Physical examination reveals 2+ pitting edema of the bilateral lower extremities extending to the knees and bibasilar crackles on lung auscultation. Her hemoglobin A1c has improved from 8.4% to 7.1%, but her weight has increased by 4 kg since her last visit. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for her worsening symptoms?
Answer choices
- APioglitazoneCorrect answer
- BEmpagliflozin
- CMetformin
- DSitagliptin
- EAcarbose
- FRosiglitazone
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