Endocrine Pharmacology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 66-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with fasting glucose of 156 mg/dL and HbA1c of 8.2%. Vital signs show BP 138/82 mmHg, HR 78/min, RR 16/min, and temperature 37°C. She requests an oral agent that enhances endogenous incretin activity without promoting weight gain. She denies prior GLP-1 receptor agonist use. The prescribing physician selects a medication that inhibits the enzyme responsible for GLP-1 degradation. Which drug was most likely prescribed?
Answer choices
- APioglitazone
- BSitagliptinCorrect answer
- CSemaglutide
- DGlyburide
- EAcarbose
- FAlogliptin
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.