Diabetes Mellitus USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 30-year-old woman presents 4 months postpartum with amenorrhea, fatigue, and galactorrhea cessation despite attempting breastfeeding. She experienced severe postpartum hemorrhage requiring transfusion. Vital signs: BP 92/58, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 36.8°C. Laboratory studies show TSH 2.1 mIU/L (normal). Serum prolactin is markedly decreased. She denies headaches or visual changes. Which hormone pattern best explains her clinical presentation and laboratory findings?
Answer choices
- AHigh prolactin and low ACTH
- BNormal prolactin and high growth hormone
- CHigh prolactin and high TSH
- DLow prolactin and low ACTHCorrect answer
- ELow prolactin and high ACTH
- FNormal prolactin and low TSH
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