Diabetes Mellitus USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 17-year-old boy presents with absent pubertal development. Vital signs show BP 110/70 mmHg, HR 82/min, RR 16/min, temperature 37°C. He has sparse facial hair, small testes (8 mL bilaterally), and anosmia since childhood. Labs reveal low testosterone (85 ng/dL) and low-normal LH/FSH levels. MRI of the sella turcica shows no sellar mass. He denies recent weight loss or visual changes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- ATurner syndrome
- BKlinefelter syndrome
- C5 alpha reductase deficiency
- DAndrogen insensitivity syndrome
- EKallmann syndromeCorrect answer
- FMicroprolactinoma
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.