Diabetes Mellitus USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 55-year-old woman presents with progressive weight loss and a 3-month history of a recurrent erythematous, vesicular rash affecting the groin and perioral regions. Vital signs show BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 92/min, RR 16/min, temperature 37.2°C, and SpO2 98% on room air. Fasting glucose is 156 mg/dL. Examination confirms necrolytic migratory erythema with central erosions. She denies diarrhea. Which of the following tumors most likely explains her clinical presentation?
Answer choices
- AInsulinoma
- BSomatostatinoma
- CVIPoma
- DGlucagonomaCorrect answer
- EGastrinoma
- FCarcinoid syndrome with associated neuroendocrine tumor
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.