Diabetes Mellitus USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 29-year-old man presents with recurrent peptic ulcers from a gastrin-secreting pancreatic tumor. He has symptomatic nephrolithiasis secondary to hypercalcemia (calcium 11.2 mg/dL) and a pituitary adenoma causing galactorrhea. Vital signs show BP 138/88 mmHg, HR 92/min, RR 16/min, temp 37°C. Recent fasting glucose is 156 mg/dL. He denies headaches or visual changes. Which syndrome best explains this constellation of findings?
Answer choices
- AMEN 1Correct answer
- BVon Hippel Lindau syndrome
- CNeurofibromatosis type 1
- DMEN 2B
- EMEN 2A
- FCarney complex
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