Diabetes Mellitus USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 29-year-old woman presents with 6 months of irregular menses and bilateral milky nipple discharge. She takes risperidone for schizophrenia. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 37°C. Pregnancy test is negative. Serum prolactin is elevated at 68 ng/mL (normal <25). Visual field examination shows no deficits. MRI brain shows no sellar mass. Which of the following mechanisms best explains this patient's endocrine abnormality?
Answer choices
- ADestruction of adrenal zona fasciculata
- BIncreased hypothalamic GnRH secretion
- CAutoimmune destruction of thyroid follicular cells
- DIncreased posterior pituitary oxytocin release
- EDecreased hypothalamic dopamine effect on lactotrophsCorrect answer
- FStalk compression from a nonfunctioning pituitary macroadenoma
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