Diabetes Mellitus USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 29-year-old woman presents with 6 months of amenorrhea and bilateral galactorrhea. Pregnancy test is negative. She reports decreased libido and mild headaches. Vital signs show BP 118/76, HR 72, RR 14, Temp 37°C. Serum prolactin is elevated at 85 ng/mL (normal <25). TSH is normal, ruling out hypothyroidism. MRI demonstrates a 7-mm pituitary microadenoma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- ASomatotroph adenoma
- BTSH secreting adenoma
- CCorticotroph adenoma
- DCraniopharyngioma
- EProlactinomaCorrect answer
- FGonadotroph adenoma
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