Diabetes Mellitus USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 35-year-old woman presents with medullary thyroid carcinoma discovered on biopsy. Her brother underwent adrenalectomy for pheochromocytoma (plasma metanephrines elevated at 450 pg/mL), and her mother has primary hyperparathyroidism with serum calcium of 11.2 mg/dL. The patient's blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg with heart rate of 92 bpm. Physical examination reveals no cutaneous manifestations. Which syndrome best explains this familial clustering of endocrine neoplasias?
Answer choices
- AVon Hippel Lindau syndrome
- BMEN 2B
- CMEN 1
- DCarney complex
- EMEN 2ACorrect answer
- FFamilial medullary thyroid carcinoma (FMTC)
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.